APSC CCE Prelims Question Paper 2025 Download Paper 1 and Paper 2 PDFs

Download APSC CCE Prelims Question Paper 2025 & Unofficial Answer Key PDF with Detailed Solutions. The APSC CCE Prelims 2025 is scheduled for June 8, 2025, and will be conducted in two shifts. Candidates appearing for the exam can now download the APSC Prelims Question Paper 2025. They can also access the APSC Unofficial Answer Key PDF and complete solution sets here. The exam will take place in two sessions. Shift 1 is from 10:00 AM to 12:00 PM for General Studies Paper 1. Shift 2 is from 2:00 PM to 4:00 PM for General Studies Paper 2 (CSAT).

APSC CCE Prelims Question Paper 2025 and Answer Key PDF

APSC CCE Prelims 2025 GS Paper 1 Questions with Answers

Question 1:
On November 21, 2024, the Assam Government officially renamed the Karimganj district as Sribhumi, along with its headquarters town Karimganj, which will now be called Sribhumi town. The new name was inspired by Rabindranath Tagore’s description of the place over a century ago as ‘Sribhumi’. As per Kabiguru Tagore’s description, the word ‘Sribhumi’ is referred to as:

Options:
(A) the land of Maa Lakshmi
(B) the land of Maa Durga
(C) the land of Maa Kamakhya
(D) the land of Maa Saraswati

✅ Correct Answer: (A) the land of Maa Lakshmi

Solution:
“Sribhumi” literally means “prosperous land” or “land of prosperity”, and Maa Lakshmi is the Hindu goddess associated with wealth and prosperity. Hence, Rabindranath Tagore’s reference connects with Maa Lakshmi.

Question 2:
The Assam Government’s decision to officially recognize ‘Bathouism’ in the Bodoland Territorial Region (BTR) primarily aims to:

Options:
(A) promote religious conversion among indigenous communities
(B) preserve and acknowledge the traditional faith of the Bodo community
(C) encourage tourism in the Bodoland region
(D) integrate Bathouism practices into mainstream Hindu rituals

✅ Correct Answer: (B) preserve and acknowledge the traditional faith of the Bodo community

Solution:
Bathouism is the traditional religion of the Bodo people. Recognizing it officially is a move to preserve indigenous cultural and religious identity, not promote conversion or merge with mainstream Hinduism.

Question 3:
On February 24, 2025, Prime Minister Narendra Modi attended the largest Jhumur event in history, celebrating the 200th anniversary of Assam’s tea industry. Consider the following statements:

(i) The tea garden community migrated from Central India in the 19th century to work in the tea gardens of Assam.
(ii) Jhumur dance originates from the Sadah ethnolinguistic group of the Chota Nagpur region.
(iii) The songs sung during Jhumur performances often depict the struggles of tea plantation workers.
(iv) Jhumur dance plays a vital role in tea garden festivals, particularly during Tushu Puja and Karam Puja.

Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
(A) (ii) only
(B) (i) and (iii) only
(C) (ii) and (iv) only
(D) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (D) None of the above

Solution:

• All statements are correct:
  • Tea workers were indeed brought from Central India.
  • Jhumur originates from the Chota Nagpur region.
  • Jhumur songs do reflect the plantation workers’ life.
  • It is linked to tribal festivals like Tushu and Karam.

Question:
Which of the following statements about Kaziranga National Park is incorrect?

Options 4:
(A) It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
(B) It is home to the highest population of one-horned rhinoceroses in the world.
(C) It was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2003.
(D) It is situated on the banks of the Brahmaputra River and lies between the Brahmaputra River and the Karbi Hills.

✅ Correct Answer: (A) It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Solution:
While Kaziranga is actually a UNESCO World Heritage Site, the question asks for the incorrect statement, but the checkmark in the image wrongly labels (A) as incorrect.

Question 5:
In February 2025, a significant conservation milestone was achieved in Assam concerning the Greater Adjutant Stork. Which of the following best describes this achievement?

Options:
(A) The species was declared ‘extinct in the wild’
(B) The stork population increased from 450 to over 1800 birds
(C) A new sanctuary exclusively for the stork was established
(D) The species was removed from the endangered list

✅ Correct Answer: (B) The stork population increased from 450 to over 1800 birds

Solution:
The Greater Adjutant Stork, locally known as “Hargila”, has been a focus of conservation in Assam. Through extensive efforts involving local communities, especially women-led initiatives, the population rose significantly from 450 to over 1800 birds, marking a conservation success story.

Question 6:
In early 2025, a rare marbled cat was spotted in which National Park of Assam?

Options:
(A) Dehing Patkai National Park
(B) Kaziranga National Park
(C) Manas National Park
(D) Nameri National Park

✅ Correct Answer: (D) Nameri National Park

Solution:
The Marbled Cat, a rare and elusive wild cat species, was sighted in Nameri National Park, which is rich in biodiversity and known for its dense forest cover, making it suitable habitat for such rare species.

Question 7:
In early 2025, concerns arose regarding declining pungency of the Bhut Jolokia chili in Assam. What was identified as the primary cause of it?

Options:
(A) Climate change affecting soil temperature
(B) Overuse of fertilizers altering soil quality
(C) Introduction of genetically modified variants
(D) Pests attacking the chili plants

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Climate change affecting soil temperature

Solution:
Bhut Jolokia (Ghost Pepper), known for its extreme heat, showed signs of reduced pungency due to climate change, particularly rising soil temperatures and changing rainfall patterns. These affect capsaicin levels, the compound responsible for the chili’s heat.

Question 8:
The Soliga tribe inhabits the Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple (BRT) Tiger Reserve in Karnataka. Their relationship with the tiger population is very important to conservation efforts. Consider the following statements in connection with Soliga tribe:

(i) The name ‘Soliga’ means ‘children of bamboo’.
(ii) The Soligas worship tigers as sacred beings. They refer to the tiger as Dodda Nayi and maintain a temple dedicated to it.
(iii) The Soligas were the first tribal community to have their forest rights recognized within a tiger reserve.
(iv) The Soliga tribe is confined to the State of Karnataka alone.

Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (iv) only
(D) (iii) only

✅ Correct Answer: (C) (iv) only

Solution:

• (i) ✅ Correct: “Soliga” translates to “Children of Bamboo”, aligning with their forest-based lifestyle.
• (ii) ✅ Correct: The Soligas revere tigers as sacred and call them “Dodda Nayi” (Big Dog), even dedicating temples.
• (iii) ✅ Correct: They were indeed the first tribal group in India to receive forest rights within a tiger reserve under the Forest Rights Act.
• (iv) ❌ Incorrect: While primarily in Karnataka, Soligas are also found in parts of Tamil Nadu, thus not confined only to Karnataka.

Question 9:
India plans to issue Sovereign Green Bonds to raise money for green infrastructure projects. Consider the following statements about India’s Sovereign Green Bonds:

Statements:

1. The funds raised will be used to finance public projects that lower the economy’s carbon intensity.
2. India issued its first Sovereign Green Bond in 2023.
3. Green Bonds are part of India’s strategy to achieve net zero emission by 2070.
4. Only private investors can subscribe to Green Bonds.

Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2, and 3 only
(C) 1, 3, and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (B) 1, 2, and 3 only

Solution:

• Statement 1 ✅ True – Sovereign Green Bonds are used for eco-friendly public projects.
• Statement 2 ✅ True – India issued its first Sovereign Green Bonds in January 2023.
• Statement 3 ✅ True – They are a key step in India’s Net Zero 2070 roadmap.
• Statement 4 ❌ False – These are open to all classes of investors, not just private investors.

Question 10:
The National One Health Mission is a recently launched initiative in India aimed at strengthening the country’s response to diseases and promoting a holistic approach to public health. Consider the following statements:

Statements:

1. The One Health Mission integrates human, animal, and environmental health under a single framework.
2. The initiative is funded entirely by the Government of India without any international collaboration.
3. The Mission aims to track zoonotic diseases like Nipah and avian influenza.
4. India is the first country in Asia to adopt a One Health approach.

Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 3, and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (C) 1, 3, and 4 only

Solution:

• Statement 1 ✅ True – One Health integrates human, animal & environmental health.
• Statement 2 ❌ False – It involves global and national partners, including WHO, FAO, etc.
• Statement 3 ✅ True – Tracking zoonotic diseases is one of the mission’s core goals.
• Statement 4 ✅ True – India is the first Asian country to roll out a full-fledged One Health mission.

Question 11:
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Eat Right Station’ certification:

Statements:

1. It is an initiative by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI).
2. As of February 2025, 150 railway stations and 6 metro stations have received the certification.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

✅ Correct Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Solution:

• Statement 1 ✅ True – The ‘Eat Right Station’ initiative is led by FSSAI under the Eat Right India movement.
• Statement 2 ✅ True – Recent updates (till 2025) confirm that 150+ railway stations and 6 metro stations received certification for safe and hygienic food.

Question 12:
The ‘Viksit Bharat 2047’ initiative is the Government of India’s vision roadmap to transform the nation into a developed country by 2047. Consider the following key objectives of the initiative:

• Objective 1: Elevate India to become the world’s third-largest economy within the next five years, aiming for a $100 trillion economy by 2047.
• Objective 2: Empower youth, women, the underprivileged, and farmers, recognizing them as pivotal contributors to national development.
• Objective 3: Implement strategies to address climate change and promote sustainable practices.
• Objective 4: Enhance administrative efficiency and transparency to ensure effective public service delivery.

Which of the above key objectives is/are not correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 3 and 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (A) 1 only

Solution:

• Objective 1 ❌ Incorrect – The $100 trillion target is unrealistic and not officially quoted in government sources.
• Objective 2 ✅ Correct – Empowering citizens is a key vision goal.
• Objective 3 ✅ Correct – Sustainability and climate strategies are emphasized.
• Objective 4 ✅ Correct – Efficient governance is a core pillar of Viksit Bharat 2047.

Question 13:
Which of the following statements describes tariff in the context of international trade?

(A) It is a tax on imports into a country.
(B) It is a tax imposed by a country on goods crossing its border.
(C) It is a quantitative restriction on traded goods.
(D) It is a reciprocal tax.

✅ Correct Answer: (A) It is a tax on imports into a country.

Solution:
A tariff is a customs duty or tax imposed by a government on imports of goods. It is a tool of protectionism and revenue generation. So, (A) is correct.

Question 14:
What is meant by ‘repo rate’ of the RBI?

(A) It is the rate of interest at which commercial banks offer loans.
(B) It is the percentage of total deposits of commercial banks that is kept in cash.
(C) It is the rate of interest at which commercial banks borrow money from the RBI for short-term needs.
(D) It is the rate at which commercial banks lend to each other.

✅ Correct Answer: (C)

Solution:
The repo rate (repurchase rate) is the interest rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks for short-term needs. It is a key tool for managing liquidity and inflation.

Question 15:
Consider the following statements about Kumbh Mela of India:
(i) It is the oldest recorded religious festival of the world.
(ii) The earliest reference to Prayaga and bathing pilgrimage is found in the Rigveda Parishishta.
(iii) The frequency of one Purna Kumbh Mela every 12 years coincides with one revolution of Jupiter around the Sun (approx.).

Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii), and (iii)

✅ Correct Answer: (D) (i), (ii), and (iii)

Solution:

• Statement (i) ✅ – Kumbh Mela is often regarded as one of the oldest religious festivals.
• Statement (ii) ✅ – Early references in Rigvedic texts confirm its ancient roots.
• Statement (iii) ✅ – Its 12-year cycle matches Jupiter’s revolution.

Question 16:
Which of the following ocean currents is/are warm currents in the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans?

(i) Benguela Current
(ii) Kuroshio Current
(iii) Norwegian Current
(iv) Peru Current

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (ii) only
(D) (ii), (iii), and (iv) only

✅ Correct Answer: (B) (ii) and (iii) only

Solution:

• Benguela Current – ❌ Cold
• Kuroshio Current – ✅ Warm (Pacific)
• Norwegian Current – ✅ Warm (Atlantic)
• Peru Current – ❌ Cold
  So only (ii) and (iii) are warm.

Question 17:
Which of the following pairs concerning canal irrigation of India is/are correct?

(i) Agra Canal – Yamuna River
(ii) Upper Bari Doab Canal – Jhelum River
(iii) Sirhind Canal – Ravi River
(iv) Bikaner Canal – Satluj River

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (ii), (iii), and (iv) only
(D) (i), (iii), and (iv) only

✅ Correct Answer: (D) (i), (iii), and (iv) only

Solution:

• (i) ✅ Agra Canal – from Yamuna
• (ii) ❌ Upper Bari Doab Canal – from Ravi, not Jhelum
• (iii) ✅ Sirhind Canal – from Ravi
• (iv) ✅ Bikaner Canal – from Satluj

Question 18:
Which of the following sequences of statements concerning tributaries of the Brahmaputra in Assam is/are not correct?

(i) The North bank tributaries (from West to East): Sankosh, Manas, Puthimari, Pagladiya
(ii) The South bank tributaries (from East to West): Dibang, Bhogdoi, Dhansiri, Kopili
(iii) The North bank tributaries (from East to West): Jiadhali, Subansiri, Ranganadi, Jia Bharali
(iv) The River Barandi forms a natural boundary between Darrang and Kamrup districts.

Select the correct answer:
(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) only
(C) (ii) and (iv) only
(D) (iii) only

✅ Correct Answer: (C) (ii) and (iv) only

Solution:

• (i) ✅ Correct north bank sequence
• (ii) ❌ Incorrect: Dibang and Bhogdoi don’t fall in that east-west flow pattern
• (iii) ✅ Correct sequence
• (iv) ❌ Barandi doesn’t serve as a district boundary between Darrang and Kamrup

Question 19:
Which of the following statements concerning Tinsukia district of Assam is/are correct?

(i) It is the Easternmost district of Assam having surrounded by Arunachal Pradesh from three sides.
(ii) It is an industrial district well-known for coal, oil, and tea production.
(iii) The Dhola-Sadiya Bridge, which is well-known as Bhupen Hazarika Setu, is constructed on the River Lohit located in this district.
(iv) The Maguri Motapung Beel is located in this district.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (ii), (iii), and (iv) only
(D) ✅ All the statements are correct

✅ Correct Answer: (D)

Solution:
All four statements are factually accurate:

• Tinsukia is the easternmost district.
• It has significant tea, coal, and oil production.
• The Bhupen Hazarika Setu connects Dhola and Sadiya over River Lohit in Tinsukia.
• The Maguri Motapung Beel is a wetland near Dibru-Saikhowa National Park in Tinsukia.

Question 20:
Rising intensities of floods and damages in Assam are said to have prime explanation(s):

(i) The water flow has become sudden and high, induced by natural and anthropogenic factors as well.
(ii) People have established settlements in low-lying areas.

Select the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Only (i) is right
(B) Only (ii) is right
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are true, and inclusive to explain the causes of rising intensity
(D) ✅ Both (i) and (ii) are true, but inclusive statements to explain intensity of floods, at present state of technology and development

✅ Correct Answer: (D)

Solution:
Both factors (natural + man-made) and human settlement patterns cause rising flood intensity. Additionally, present development gaps, poor drainage, and insufficient tech responses make (D) the most holistic and inclusive answer.

Question 21:
The impact of cyclones and tsunamis in India could be reduced by:

(i) Preserving mangrove forests
(ii) Preserving montane forests
(iii) Preserving tropical thorny and scrub forests
(iv) Preserving tropical deciduous forests

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(D) ✅ All are correct

✅ Correct Answer: (D)

Solution:

• Mangroves (i) are most effective against tsunamis and cyclones.
• Montane, deciduous, and thorn forests (ii, iii, iv) play roles in erosion control, climate regulation, and wind damage mitigation.
  Hence, all help in reducing the impact to varying degrees.

Question 22:
Authors Arup Kumar Dutta, Arupjyoti Saikia and Samrat Choudhury have common theme(s) in their writing:

(i) They are acclaimed writers on the Brahmaputra
(ii) They have written on Assam’s social history
(iii) They have written on tea and tea plantation history
(iv) They have written on Assam’s geography

Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (ii), (iii), and (iv) only
(D) ✅ All are correct

✅ Correct Answer: (D)

Solution:
All three writers have:

• Written extensively on Assam’s history, geography, and culture
• Arupjyoti Saikia is noted for research on Brahmaputra and Assam’s environmental history
• Arup Kumar Dutta has addressed tea plantation and youth culture
• Samrat Choudhury writes on politics and society of Assam

Question 23:
In India during 2001 to 2011, the number of census towns showed rapid growth (increased by a total of 2500 in number) compared to statutory towns (increased by about 250 in number). The rapid growth of census towns was because of:

(i) Formation of municipal board/committee and notified town area committee, etc.
(ii) Rapid growth of population leading to cross the minimum requirement of 5000 inhabitants to qualify as a town
(iii) The town area becoming densely populated with more than 400 persons per square kilometre
(iv) Three-fourths of the male workforce found full-time jobs beyond agriculture activities

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) (i), (ii), and (iii) only
(B) (ii), (iii), and (iv) only
(C) (i), (iii), and (iv) only
(D) ✅ (iv) only

✅ Correct Answer: (D)

Solution:
As per Census 2011 definitions, a census town must:

• Have a minimum population of 5000
• Density ≥ 400 persons/km²
• 75%+ male workforce engaged in non-agricultural activities

However, option (iv) is the main criteria for classifying census towns and (i) relates to statutory towns, which is not applicable here. Hence, (D) is correct.

Question 24:
Rangsapara village (Goalpara district) and Zion village (Dima Hasao district) of Assam occupied the limelight in the last decade because:

(i) The villages were evaluated as the cleanest villages of the State
(ii) Rangsapara was evaluated as the cleanest, whereas all 25+ age group population of Zion had attained education level graduate and above
(iii) Rangsapara village faced catastrophe caused by flash flood and Zion was devastated by landslides

Select the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Only (i) is correct
(B) Only (ii) is correct
(C) ✅ Only (iii) is correct
(D) All are correct

✅ Correct Answer: (C)

Solution:
Only statement (iii) is factually reported — flash floods in Rangsapara and landslides in Zion brought them to prominence. Cleanest village and educational achievement points (i, ii) are not verified official highlights. Hence, only (iii) is correct.

Question 25:
Consider the following statements about oil in Assam:

(i) Assam is home to India’s first oil refinery, established at Digboi in 1901.
(ii) The major oil-producing districts in Assam include Jorhat, Dibrugarh, but not Tinsukia.
(iii) The Assam oil fields contribute over 50% of India’s total crude oil production.
(iv) Oil India Limited (OIL) has its headquarters in Duliajan, Assam.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) ✅ (ii) and (iv) only
(C) (i) only
(D) (i), (ii), and (iii) only

✅ Correct Answer: (B)

Solution:

• ✅ (ii) is correct: Major producers include Jorhat and Dibrugarh, but Tinsukia is not a major producer.
• ✅ (iv): OIL is headquartered in Duliajan, Assam.
• ❌ (i): Digboi refinery was commissioned in 1901, but not the first in modern India; it’s the oldest still in operation. Technically, this is debatable.
• ❌ (iii): Assam contributes significantly but not over 50% — India’s oil comes from multiple regions, especially Gujarat and offshore areas.

Question 26:
Based on the 2011 Census data, here is a list of major towns in Assam arranged in descending order of their urban population. Select the correct sequence:

(A) Tinsukia, Tezpur, Jorhat, Dibrugarh
(B) Dibrugarh, Tezpur, Jorhat, Tinsukia
(C) Dibrugarh, Tinsukia, Jorhat, Tezpur
(D) ✅ Dibrugarh, Jorhat, Tinsukia, Tezpur

✅ Correct Answer: (D)

Solution:
As per 2011 Census, the descending population order among these towns is:

1. Dibrugarh
2. Jorhat
3. Tinsukia
4. Tezpur

Question 27:
Match the following Deserts (List–I) with their respective Continents (List–II):

List–I	List–II
a. Kalahari Desert	1. North America
b. Atacama Desert	2. Asia
c. Gobi Desert	3. South America
d. Great Basin Desert	4. Africa

Options:
(A) a–4, b–1, c–2, d–3
(B) a–4, b–3, c–2, d–1
(C) a–4, b–2, c–1, d–3
(D) a–3, b–4, c–2, d–1

✅ Correct Answer: (B) a–4, b–3, c–2, d–1

---

Explanation:

Desert	Continent
Kalahari	Africa (4)
Atacama	South America (3)
Gobi	Asia (2)
Great Basin	North America (1)

Question 28:
Match the following Grasslands (List–I) with their respective Locations (List–II):

List–I	List–II
a. Pampas	1. North America
b. Steppes	2. Eurasia
c. Prairies	3. Argentina
d. Velds	4. South Africa

Options:
(A) a–3, b–2, c–1, d–4
(B) a–2, b–1, c–3, d–4
(C) a–4, b–3, c–2, d–1
(D) a–1, b–3, c–4, d–2

✅ Correct Answer: (A) a–3, b–2, c–1, d–4

---

Explanation:

Grassland	Location
Pampas	Argentina (3)
Steppes	Eurasia (2)
Prairies	North America (1)
Velds	South Africa (4)

Question 29:
Which of the following statements about Paralympic Games is not correct?

(A) The medals tally of India was the highest so far in any Paralympic event with a total of 29 medals in Paris, 2024.
(B) India made first appearance in the Paralympic event in the year 1968.
(C) The first Paralympic event was held in the year 1968.
(D) The Paralympic motto is ‘Spirit in Motion’.

✅ Correct Answer: (C)

Explanation:

• (A) Correct – India won 29 medals in 2024, as per recent reports.
• (B) Correct – India debuted in 1968 at the Paralympics.
• (C) Incorrect – The first Paralympic Games were held in 1960, Rome, not 1968.
• (D) Correct – Motto: “Spirit in Motion”

Question 30:
What is the recent India–US ‘TRUST’ initiative related to?

(A) It is a bilateral initiative for mutual cooperation in recovery and processing of critical minerals
(B) It is a bilateral initiative to ease certain import–export regulations between the two countries
(C) It refers to a bilateral initiative for transfer of technology for boosting the power sector
(D) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A)

Explanation:
The TRUST initiative (Technology-based Resources for Ubiquitous Supply and Transparency) is aimed at cooperation in supply chains and critical mineral processing, essential for clean energy technologies.

Question 31:
Who among the following is not a Bharat Ratna awardee of the year 2024?

(A) L. K. Advani
(B) M. S. Swaminathan
(C) Padma Subrahmanyam
(D) Karpoori Thakur

✅ Correct Answer: (C)

Explanation:
2024 Bharat Ratna awardees:

• L. K. Advani
• Karpoori Thakur (Posthumously)
• P. V. Narasimha Rao (Posthumously)
• Chaudhary Charan Singh (Posthumously)
• M. S. Swaminathan was awarded Bharat Ratna in 2024 – so the correct answer here is actually (C) Padma Subrahmanyam, as she was not awarded in 2024.

Question 32:
In which of the following areas, the first pig schools of India are to be started to enhance technical know-how and biosecurity about pig farming in partnership with Denmark?

Options:
(A) Bodoland Territorial Region
(B) Dima Hasao district of Assam
(C) Dhemaji district of Assam
(D) Panikhaiti near Guwahati

✅ Correct Answer: (D) Panikhaiti near Guwahati

Explanation:
India’s first pig schools are being established at Panikhaiti near Guwahati, Assam in collaboration with Denmark. This initiative aims to boost pig farming through technical expertise and biosecurity measures.

Question 33:
Match the following Prime Ministers (List–I) with their biographies/autobiographies (List–II):

List–I (Prime Ministers)	List–II (Books)
a. Narasimha Rao	1. The Accidental Prime Minister
b. I. K. Gujral	2. Matters of Discretion
c. Manmohan Singh	3. The Man Who Remade India
d. Narendra Modi	4. The Paradoxical Prime Minister

Options:
(A) a–3, b–2, c–1, d–4
(B) a–3, b–2, c–4, d–1
(C) a–4, b–1, c–3, d–2
(D) a–3, b–2, c–1, d–4

✅ Correct Answer: (A) a–3, b–2, c–1, d–4

Explanation:

• Narasimha Rao – The Man Who Remade India by Vinay Sitapati
• I. K. Gujral – Matters of Discretion (autobiography)
• Manmohan Singh – The Accidental Prime Minister by Sanjaya Baru
• Narendra Modi – The Paradoxical Prime Minister by Shashi Tharoor

Question 34:
Consider the following statements on Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:

(i) It introduces new crimes like organized crime
(ii) It introduces community service as a punishment
(iii) It introduces new provisions to eliminate offence on sedition
(iv) It includes mob lynching as an offence

Options:
(A) Only (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) Only (ii) is correct
(C) None of the statements is correct
(D) All the statements are correct

✅ Correct Answer: (D) All the statements are correct

Explanation:
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which replaces IPC, includes:

• Recognition of organized crime
• Community service for minor offences
• Removal of sedition as a crime
• Inclusion of mob lynching under punishable acts

Question 35:
The demarcation of any region as a Defence Industrial Corridor (DIC) is to achieve self-reliance in defence manufacturing. Two DICs exist in India and the third one has been negotiated by a State with the Central Government in recent years.
Choose the correct combination of the States/UTs:

Options:
(A) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu
(B) Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Assam
(C) Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Jammu & Kashmir
(D) Assam, Jammu & Kashmir, Gujarat

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Assam

Explanation:

• Defence Industrial Corridors currently exist in:
  • Tamil Nadu
  • Uttar Pradesh
• Assam is in talks with the Centre for establishing the third DIC.
  This makes (B) the correct answer.

Question 36:
The 100th Constitutional Amendment of India enabled the implementation of a controversial international agreement. Which of the following is referred to here?

Options:
(A) Land Boundary Agreement
(B) Foreign Direct Investment in Defence
(C) Trade Liberalization Agreement
(D) Indo-US Nuclear Deal

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Land Boundary Agreement

Explanation:
The 100th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2015, implemented the Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) between India and Bangladesh, involving the exchange of certain enclaves. It was a historic settlement of border disputes.

Question 37:
The Supreme Court of India has placed the Right to Privacy under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

Options:
(A) Article 15
(B) Article 16
(C) Article 19
(D) Article 21

✅ Correct Answer: (D) Article 21

Explanation:
In the landmark Puttaswamy judgment (2017), the Supreme Court declared Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right under Article 21 – Protection of Life and Personal Liberty.

Question 38:
Consider the following statements:
(i) The first Assam Assembly was inaugurated on 7th April, 1937.
(ii) After the 1937 provincial elections in Assam, the Indian National Congress Party secured the most mandate.
(iii) The Legislative Council of Eastern Bengal and Assam was initiated in 1905.
(iv) Baithalangso, Haflong, Bokajan, Howraghat and Diphu Assembly Constituencies fall under the Autonomous District Lok Sabha Constituency.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Options:
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) only
(C) (i) and (iv) only
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

✅ Correct Answer: (D) All statements are correct

Explanation:

• (i) Correct: Assam Assembly started in 1937 as part of Government of India Act, 1935.
• (ii) Correct: INC won majority in 1937 Assam elections.
• (iii) Correct: Legislative Council of Eastern Bengal and Assam was initiated in 1905.
• (iv) Correct: The mentioned constituencies belong to Autonomous District LS Constituency.

Question 39:
Which of the following are constituted by the President of India?

(i) The Finance Commission of India
(ii) The NITI Aayog
(iii) The Commission on Official Languages
(iv) The Union Public Service Commission

Options:
(A) (i) and (iii) only
(B) (iii) and (iv) only
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

✅ Correct Answer: (C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

Explanation:

• (i) Finance Commission – Constituted by President under Article 280
• (ii) NITI Aayog – Set up by the Government of India, not by President
• (iii) Commission on Official Languages – Constituted by President under Article 344
• (iv) UPSC – Constituted by President under Article 315

Question 40:
Which of the following is/are common feature(s) of both the Indian and American Federalism?

(i) Single citizenship
(ii) Three lists of division of powers in the Constitution
(iii) Dual Judiciary
(iv) The Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution

Options:
(A) (i) and (iv) only
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(D) (iv) only

✅ Correct Answer: (D) (iv) only

Explanation:

• (i) Single citizenship – Only in India, not in the USA (they have dual citizenship: state + federal)
• (ii) Three lists – Only in India, not in the USA
• (iii) Dual Judiciary – Found in the USA, not in India
• (iv) Supreme Court interprets Constitution – Common to both countries

Question 41:
Which of the following comes under the Directive Principles of State Policy?

Options:
(A) The State shall strive to promote science and technology for development
(B) The State shall endeavour to secure citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout India
(C) The State shall try to develop population policy and family planning
(D) The State shall take necessary steps for promoting tourism

✅ Correct Answer: (B) The State shall endeavour to secure citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout India

Explanation:
This is mentioned under Article 44 of the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution. It urges the state to secure for its citizens a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) across the territory of India.

Question 42:
In which of the following States, there is a constitutional requirement to have a minister in charge of the tribal welfare?

Options:
(A) Assam, Nagaland and Manipur
(B) Himachal Pradesh, Haryana and Rajasthan
(C) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha
(D) Manipur, Tripura and Meghalaya

✅ Correct Answer: (C) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha

Explanation:
As per Article 164(1) of the Indian Constitution, in the states of Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha and Jharkhand, there must be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare.

Question 43:
Which of the following States was the last one to get the status of full statehood?

Options:
(A) Sikkim
(B) Manipur
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Meghalaya

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Sikkim

Explanation:
Sikkim became the 22nd state of India on 26th April 1975 via the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975, making it the last among the listed options to get full statehood.

Question 44:
Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, a special provision is made for the State of Assam?

Options:
(A) Article 371A
(B) Article 371C
(C) Article 371B
(D) Article 371D

✅ Correct Answer: (C) Article 371B

Explanation:
Article 371B deals with special provisions for Assam. It provides for the creation of a committee in the Assam Legislative Assembly consisting of members elected from the tribal areas of the state.

Question 45:
Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India grants the Supreme Court of India the power to review its own judgments and orders?

Options:
(A) Article 78
(B) Article 234
(C) Article 145
(D) Article 137

✅ Correct Answer: (D) Article 137

Explanation:
Article 137 of the Indian Constitution gives the Supreme Court the authority to review its own judgments or orders. This review jurisdiction is a part of the Court’s inherent powers to ensure justice.

Question 46:

Match the following Chief Ministers of Assam with their corresponding periods of service:

List–I:

• a. Bishnuram Medhi
• b. Mahendra Mohan Choudhury
• c. Bimala Prasad Chaliha
• d. Gopinath Bordoloi

List–II:

1. 28th Dec, 1957–6th Nov, 1970
2. 26th Jan, 1950–5th Aug, 1950
3. 9th Aug, 1950–27th Dec, 1957
4. 11th Nov, 1970–30th Jan, 1972

Correct Answer: (B) 3-4-1-2

Matching:

• a. Bishnuram Medhi → 3. 9th Aug, 1950 – 27th Dec, 1957
• b. Mahendra Mohan Choudhury → 4. 11th Nov, 1970 – 30th Jan, 1972
• c. Bimala Prasad Chaliha → 1. 28th Dec, 1957 – 6th Nov, 1970
• d. Gopinath Bordoloi → 2. 26th Jan, 1950 – 5th Aug, 1950

Explanation:
Matching the tenure correctly based on Assam political history gives the correct answer as option (B).

Question 47:

Which of the following best explains why courts appoint an amicus curiae in criminal matters?

(A) To ensure that the prosecution has adequate resources to argue its case
(B) To expedite the trial process for efficiency
(C) To provide representation to the accused when they are unrepresented
(D) To act as a mediator between the accused and the victim

Correct Answer: (C)

Explanation:
“Amicus Curiae” means “friend of the court.” It refers to someone (often an advocate) appointed to assist the court by offering information, expertise, or insight, especially in cases where one party is unrepresented.

Question 48:

The concept of ‘Rule of Law’ has several elements, some of which are:

(i) Absence of arbitrary power
(ii) Equality before law
(iii) Primacy of the rights of the individual
(iv) Cannot be destroyed by an amendment

Which of the above are applicable to the Indian system?

(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(D) (i), (ii), and (iv) only

Correct Answer: (D)

Explanation:
The Indian Constitution guarantees:

• Absence of arbitrary power (through judicial review, due process, etc.)
• Equality before law (Article 14)
• Certain rights cannot be amended (Basic Structure doctrine)

However, primacy of individual rights over the state is not absolute in India (reasonable restrictions apply). Hence, (iii) does not apply completely.

Question 49:

W.W. Rostow’s model of economic development proposes that all countries progress through five stages. What is the correct sequence?

(A) Traditional society, Pre-conditions for takeoff, Take-off, Age of high mass consumption, Drive to maturity
(B) Traditional society, Take-off, Pre-conditions for take-off, Drive to maturity, Age of high mass consumption
(C) Traditional society, Pre-conditions for takeoff, Take-off, Drive to maturity, Age of high mass consumption
(D) Traditional society, Pre-conditions for takeoff, Take-off, Drive to maturity, Age of high mass consumption

Correct Answer: (D)

Explanation:
According to W.W. Rostow’s “Stages of Economic Growth” model:

1. Traditional society
2. Preconditions for take-off
3. Take-off
4. Drive to maturity
5. Age of high mass consumption

Option (D) correctly sequences these five stages.

Question 50:

Biofuels offer a viable alternative towards environmentally friendly energy landscape. Which of the following statements regarding use of biofuels to meet energy demands are correct?

(i) Aggressive use and production of first-generation biofuels may threaten food security.
(ii) Production of first-generation biofuels is not environment-friendly.
(iii) A concern regarding biofuels is that extensive cultivation of plants for extracting biofuels may increase deforestation and habitat destruction.
(iv) Biofuel production will lead to large amount of toxic metallic waste which may adversely affect human health.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii), and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii), and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv) only

Correct Answer: (A) (i), (ii), and (iii)

Detailed Explanation:

1. (i) Aggressive use and production of first-generation biofuels may threaten food security – Correct
   • First-generation biofuels are derived from food crops like sugarcane, corn, and wheat. Their excessive use for fuel can divert crops from food supply, leading to food shortages and price hikes.
2. (ii) Production of first-generation biofuels is not environment-friendly – Correct
   • The cultivation and processing of biofuel crops can lead to increased water usage, pesticide use, and GHG emissions, making it less eco-friendly.
3. (iii) Extensive cultivation of plants for biofuels may increase deforestation and habitat destruction – Correct
   • Expanding land use for biofuel crops often leads to clearing forests and natural ecosystems, contributing to habitat loss and biodiversity decline.
4. (iv) Biofuel production will lead to toxic metallic waste – Incorrect
   • Biofuels do not typically result in toxic metallic waste. This is more associated with e-waste or industrial processes, not biofuel production.

APSC Prelims 2025 – Exam Structure and Key Highlights

The APSC Prelims 2025 included two papers under General Studies—Paper I and Paper II (CSAT). Both were objective-type tests. They were held on the same day but in different sessions. This scheduling was to avoid confusion and ensure everything ran smoothly.

General Studies Paper I was the main paper that candidates needed to focus on. It covered a broad range of topics like Indian polity, economy, environment, and current affairs. This paper was worth 200 marks and had a duration of 2 hours, demanding solid preparation.

On the other hand, Paper II—also known as the CSAT—tested the candidates’ aptitude, reasoning, and comprehension skills. It was also 2 hours long but was only qualifying in nature. Candidates just needed to score 33% in it to pass. This made it less stressful compared to Paper I.

Candidates should note that there is negative marking in the exam — 0.25 marks will be deducted for every wrong answer. Understanding the APSC CCE Paper 1 and Paper 2 pattern is essential. It helps in scoring well. It also aids in planning your attempt strategy effectively.

APSC CCE Prelims Question Paper 2025 GS Paper 1 and 2 FAQs

Ques. Where can I download the APSC Prelims question paper 2025?
Ans. The official PDFs for both General Studies Paper I and CSAT Paper II will be available on the APSC website. They will be accessible once released.

Ques. What is the exam pattern for APSC Prelims 2025?
Ans. The APSC Prelims consist of two objective-type papers:

• General Studies Paper I: 200 marks, 2 hours duration.
• General Studies Paper II (CSAT): 200 marks, 2 hours duration. However, CSAT is qualifying in nature, requiring a minimum of 33% to pass.

Ques. Is the CSAT paper becoming more challenging?
Ans. Yes, recent trends indicate an increase in the difficulty level of the CSAT paper, emphasizing the need for thorough preparation in aptitude and reasoning skills.

Ques. How many questions are there in each paper of the Prelims?

• General Studies Paper I: 100 questions.
• General Studies Paper II (CSAT): 80 questions.

Ques. Are current affairs questions included in the Prelims?
Ans. Yes, current affairs, both national and international, form a significant portion of the General Studies Paper I. It’s essential to stay updated with recent events and issues.

Ques. What is the marking scheme for the Prelims?
Ans. Each correct answer awards +1 mark. There is a negative marking of 0.25 marks for each incorrect answer.

Ques. What is the minimum qualifying mark for the CSAT paper in APSC Prelims?
Ans. The CSAT paper (General Studies Paper II) in APSC Prelims is qualifying in nature. Candidates must secure a minimum of 33% marks, which is approximately 66 marks out of 200, to qualify.

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