TNPSC Group 1 2025 Prelims Exam is scheduled for 15 June 2025. It will be held from 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM. The exam will be conducted in a single session on that day. The TNPSC Group 1 Question Paper 2025 and Answer Key will be available here. You can download them in PDF format once the exam is conducted. Aspirants can download TNPSC Group 1 Prelims 2025 Question Paper from Links given below.
TNPSC Group 1 Question Paper 2025 PDF
1. Which of statements are True?
(i) Octane number increases with chain length.
(ii) Cycloalkanes have higher Octane number than straight chain alkanes.
(iii) Alkenes and aromatic hydrocarbon have higher Octane number than straight chain alkanes.
(iv) Branched chain alkanes have lower octane number than straight chain alkanes.
(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
2. Match the following hormone with the disorder caused :
(a) Insulin – 1. Cushing’s syndrome
(b) Thyroxine – 2. Diabetes insipidus
(c) Glucocorticoids – 3. Acromegaly
(d) Growth hormone – 4. Goitre
5. Diabetes Mellitus
(A) (a)-5, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-3
(B) (a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-3, (d)-1
(C) (a)-5, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3
(D) (a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3
3. Choose the right matches :
(1) Carotenoid – C55H70O5N4Mg
(2) Chlorophyll ‘a’ – C55H72O5N4Mg
(3) Chlorophyll ‘b’ – C55H70O6N4Mg
(4) Xanthophyll – C50H70O5Mg
(A) (1) and (2) are correct
(B) (3) and (4) are correct
(C) (2) and (3) are correct
(D) (1) and (4) are correct
4. The Nobel Prize in Medicine was awarded to Victor Ambros and Gary Ruvkun for their discovery of
(A) Expression Sequence Tags
(B) Micro RNA
(C) DNA micro array
(D) SNP’s
5. Which of the following statements are true about crew selection and training for “Gaganyaan Mission”?
(i) Crews are selected after clinical, psychological and aeromedical examination.
(ii) Mission-specific training will be conducted at ISRO, Trivandrum.
(iii) Selected astronauts will undergo their generic spaceflight training in Yuri Gagarin Cosmonaut training centre, Russia.
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (iii) only
(D) (i) and (iii) only
6. Which of the following statements are correct about PFAS?
(i) PFAS is per and poly fluoro alkyl substances.
(ii) It is used in paint industries.
(iii) PFAS are endocrine disrupters.
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) (i) and (iii) are correct
(D) (i) only correct
7. The biological oxygen demand is the amount of dissolved oxygen required by _______________ in water.
(A) Microbes
(B) Plants
(C) Animals
(D) Seaweeds
8. Which of the following is the first Indian Geo-Stationary Satellite?
(A) INSAT 3D
(B) LANDSAT 8
(C) IKONOS 1
(D) QUICK BIRD
9. Who among the following tribes act as cattle keepers?
(A) Dhimor
(B) Kewats
(C) Rawats
(D) Bhils
10. Assertion [A] : Development of a nation depends on infrastructure facilities.
Reason [R] : Transport and communication are the back bone of economic development.
(A) [A] and [R] is true and [R] is correct explanation for [A]
(B) [A] is true but [R] is false
(C) [A], [R] is true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A].
(D) Both [A] and [R] are not correct
11. Match correctly the river and its places of rises.
(a) The Krishna – 1. Garwal Tibet border
(b) The Alaknanda – 2. Central Himalayas
(c) The Gandak – 3. Tibet
(d) The Brahmaputra – 4. Sahyadris
(A) (a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-4, (d)-1
(B) (a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-3
(C) (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-4
(D) (a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-3
12. Arrange the following events in chronological order.
(i) Ahemadabad Mill Strike
(ii) Champaran Satyagraha
(iii) Kheda Satyagraha
(iv) Rowlatt Satyagraha
(A) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(B) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
13. How did education contribute to the Indian Renaissance?
(i) Contributed Growth of Money
(ii) Promoting scientific learning
(iii) Promoted social and cultural progress
(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (ii) only
(D) (i) and (iii) only
14. Match the following :
(a) Peshwa – 1. Foreign Secretary
(b) Amatya – 2. Chief Minister
(c) Sachiva – 3. Finance Minister
(d) Sumant – 4. Superintendent
(A) (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4
(B) (a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-3
(C) (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1
(D) (a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-4
15. Choose the right matches among type :
(a) ‘Indian World’ Journal – 1. J.S. Buckingham
(b) ‘Telegraph’ Journal – 2. Charles MacLean
(c) ‘Bengal Kirkaru’ Journal – 3. Mekenly
(d) ‘Calcutta’ Journal – 4. Duane
(A) (a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1
(B) (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-4
(C) (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-2
(D) (a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-3
16. Reason and Assertion type :
Assertion [A] : Cinema was becoming popular in 1940’s.
Reason [R] : Anna could achieve his ideals through Cinema Artists.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false but [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
17. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(A) Champaran Agitation – Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Ghadar Party – Lala Hardayal
(C) Ganapathy Festival – Annie Besant
(D) Home Rule Movement – Gandhiji
18. In Tuticorin, Tamil Nadu, Subramaniya Siva Campaigned for strike in 1908.
(A) March – April
(B) January – February
(C) February – March
(D) April – May
19. Which of the following statements are true?
(i) The National population policy, was promulgated in April 1976.
(ii) Included provisions for health care, nutrition and more stress on Education for girls.
(iii) The goal was an eventual average family size of two children.
(A) (i) only correct
(B) (i) and (ii) only correct
(C) (ii) and (iii) only correct
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) correct
20. Who founded the Satya Shodak Samaj in 1873?
(A) Jyoti Rao Phule
(B) Sri Narayana Guru
(C) Pandita Ramabai
(D) Dayananda Saraswati
21. Which among the following was the first Christian Ashram established in South?
(A) C.F. Ashram at Pachalur
(B) Christukula Ashram at Tiruppatur
(C) Zion Prayer Center at Madurai
(D) Dyana Ashram at Chennai
22. The Talaikota Battle was also called as _______________.
(A) Toppur Battle
(B) Rakahasi – Tangadi Battle
(C) Battle of Rajagambira Rajyam
(D) Battle of Kannanur Kuppam
23. Shivaji was crowned as an independent king at
(A) Raigad
(B) Surat
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Poona
24. In the Indus Valley civilization the major commodities in Internal trade consist of
(1) Cotton
(2) Lumber
(3) Grain and food stuffs
(4) Livestock
(A) (1), (2), (3) only correct
(B) (1), (2), (4) only correct
(C) (1), (2), (3), (4) correct
(D) (1), (4) only correct
25. Which is/are the aims of a sound “Theosophical Society”?
(i) Believes in Karma, Yoga and Indian Philosophy.
(ii) Universal spiritual brotherhood.
(iii) To protect the society from evil practices.
(A) (i) only correct
(B) (ii) and (iii) only correct
(C) (i) and (ii) only correct
(D) (ii) only correct
26. Assertion [A] : The zonal councils owe their origin to the constitution.
Reason [R] : The zonal councils are the logical outcome of the reorganisation of states on a linguistic basis.
(A) [A] and [R] are correct; and [R] is the correct explanation for [A]
(B) [A] and [R] are correct; and [R] is not the correct explanation for [A]
(C) [A] is correct; [R] is wrong
(D) [A] is wrong; [R] is correct
27. Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act was enacted in the year
(A) 2013
(B) 2017
(C) 2014
(D) 2016
28. Arrange the following events in chronological order.
- Golaknath v/s State of Punjab
- Keshvananda Bharati v/s State of Kerala
- Minerva Mills Ltd. v/s State of India
- A.K. Gopalan v/s State of Madras
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 3, 4, 1, 2
(C) 4, 1, 2, 3
(D) 1, 3, 2, 4
29. Match correctly with the Suitable Act.
(a) Preventive Detention Act (PDA) in India – 1. 1971
(b) The National Emergencies Act was signed into law by President Gerald Ford on – 2. 1974
(c) The Indo-Pakistan war – 3. 1950
(d) Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act – 4. 1976
(A) (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-3
(B) (a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-3, (d)-2
(C) (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2
(D) (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4
30. Consider the following Statements, Choose the correct answer :
(i) January 30th is the Death anniversary of Annal Gandhi Adigal
(ii) January 23rd is the Birth Anniversary of Netaji Subash Chandra Bose
(iii) April 14th is the Birth Anniversary of Annal Ambedkar
(iv) October 13th is the Birth Anniversary of Sardar Vallabhai Patel
(A) (i) and (ii) only correct
(B) (iv) only correct
(C) (iii) only correct
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) only correct
31. Consider the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct answer.
Assertion [A] : A remarkable difference between China and India was observed regarding mass politics around air pollution control.
Reason [R] : China employing the approach of Historical Institutionalism to control air pollution.
(A) Both [A] and [R] are correct statement; [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(B) Both [A] and [R] are correct; [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is correct; But [R] is false
(D) [R] is correct; But [A] is false
32. Which of the following are the objectives of Tamilnadu safe and Ethical Artificial Intelligence Policy, 2020?
(i) To establish guidelines for the evaluation of AI systems before its rolled out for public use
(ii) To provide restricted access to open data, data models and computing resources
(iii) To promote investments in AIR & D in Tamilnadu
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (ii) only
(D) (ii) and (iii) only
33. Which is/are the objective/s of a Right to Information Act 2005?
(i) RTI is empower to citizens, promote transparency and accountability in the working of Govt.
(ii) The Act is a big step towards making the citizens informed about the activities of Govt.
(iii) This Act provides right to access information from public authorities, which is guaranteed Art. 13 of constitution.
(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (ii) only
(D) (i) and (iii) only
34. Which among the following was the first state in India to constitute an institution of Lok Ayukta?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Kerala
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Rajasthan
35. Which of the following statements are true about Election Commission of India?
(i) Conduct elections to parliament, State Legislatures and to the office of President and the Vice-President
(ii) India’s First Woman Chief Election Commissioner Ms. V.S. Ramadevi
(iii) India’s first Chief Election Commissioner Mr. S.P. Sen Varma
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (ii) only
(D) (ii) and (iii) only
36. Match :
(a) Article 257(A) – 1. Grants-in-aid
(b) Article 131 – 2. Judicial proceedings
(c) Article 245(1) – 3. Supreme Court
(d) Article 275 – 4. State Jurisdiction
5. 42nd Amendment Act
(A) (a)-5, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1
(B) (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-5, (d)-3
(C) (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4
(D) (a)-2, (b)-5, (c)-1, (d)-3
37. Choose the correct matches from the following.
(i) Fourth Finance Commission – A.K. Chanda
(ii) Tenth Finance Commission – Shri K.C. Pant
(iii) Sixth Finance Commission – Dr. Rajamannar
(iv) Ninth Finance Commission – Shri N.K.P. Salve
(A) (i) and (iii) are correct
(B) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(C) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
38. The Financial Position of the Panchayat is reveiwed under
(A) Article 243-I
(B) Article 243-E
(C) Article 243-B
(D) Article 243-C
39. Which of the following statements are true about the qualifications for membership of the state legislature?
(i) 25 years of age in the case of Legislative Assembly
(ii) 30 years of age in the case of Legislative Council
(iii) Possesses such other qualifications as may not be prescribed by law passed by parliament
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (i) and (iii) only
(D) (ii) and (iii) only
40. The Madras Legislative Council was formed by the
(A) Government of India Act of 1919
(B) Government of India Act of 1935
(C) Indian Councils Act of 1861
(D) Government of India Act of 1858
41. Arrange the following stages in the enactment of Budget in Ascending order
- Voting on Demand for grants
- Passing of Finance bill
- Passing of Appropriation bill
- Scrutiny by departmental committees
(A) 2, 3, 1, 4
(B) 1, 2, 4, 3
(C) 4, 1, 3, 2
(D) 3, 1, 4, 2
42. Consider the following statements about the Electoral College of Presidential Election, which among the following statements is correct?
(A) The nominated member of Lok Sabha
(B) The nominated member of Legislative Councils of States
(C) The Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and elected members the State Legislature and Union Territories
(D) The nominated member of House of states
43. Assertion [A] : Article 51-A does not expressly cast any fundamental duty on the state.
Reason [R] : The duty of every citizen of India is the collective duty of the state.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false, [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
44. Which of the following articles on Fundamental Rights is incorrectly paired?
- Article 12 – Definition of State
- Article 21 – Right to Education
- Article 34 – Power of the Parliament to modify the rights
- Article 35 – Legislation to give effect to the provisions of the fundamental rights
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 3 and 4 only
45. The word “union” is the “Union of States” in our Constitution was inspired by the
(A) Canadian Constitution
(B) England Constitution
(C) Irish Constitution
(D) U.S. Constitution
46. Choose the right matches:
- Power of High Courts to issue certain writs – Article 226
- Transfer of certain cases to High Court – Article 178
- Establishment of a common High Court for two (or) more states – Article 231
- Extension of jurisdiction of High Courts to Union Territories – Article 320
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 4 only
47. Consider the following statements, and choose the correct answer :
(i) The American Constitution was the first to begin with a preamble.
(ii) “Preamble” to the Indian Constitution, resembles “Independence of the United States” observes N.A. Palkhivala.
(iii) Justice M. Hidayatullah, called the preamble, as the Identity Card of the Constitution.
(iv) A Republic Includes all public offices being opened to every citizen without any discrimination.
(A) (i) only correct
(B) (i) and (iv) only correct
(C) (ii) and (iii) only correct
(D) (ii) and (iv) only correct
48. State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu (SIPCOT) was established by Tamil Nadu Government for the development of
(i) Large Scale Industries
(ii) Medium Scale Industries
(iii) Small Scale Industries
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) only
(C) (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (i) and (iii) only
49. The Scheme “Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Unnat Gram Abhiyan” focuses on
(i) To improve the socio-economic condition of tribal communities
(ii) To empower tribal women and promote gender equality
(iii) To provide high quality education for the tribal children
(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) only
(C) (iii) only
(D) (i) and (ii) only
50. From the following in the year 1962 in the wake of Chinese invasion which Act was passed?
(i) Anti-Secession Act
(ii) Anti-Immigration Act
(iii) Anti-Trafficking Act
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (i) and (iii) only
51. Assertion [A] : Social Justice basically does not deal with equal social opportunities.
Reason [R] : Social Justice is non-proportional to either social equality or social rights.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false, [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are false
52. Assertion [A] : The overall policy framework for the social sectors in India is laid out by the Central Government.
Reason [R] : The State governments have considerable flexibility in designing policies.
(A) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
(C) Both [A] and [R] are not true
(D) [A] is true and [R] is false
53. Choose the right matches
(i) The first communal order for distribution of appointments among various castes – 1920
(ii) First Backward class commission of Tamilnadu was appointed – 1970
(iii) Ambasankar Commission – Reservation totalling to 69%
(iv) Report on Tamilnadu Backward classes Commission justifying the existing reservation – 8th July 2011
(A) (i) and (iv) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (ii) only
(D) (iii) and (iv) only
54. Match the following schemes with their respective beneficiaries
(a) Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatravas Yojana – 1. Scheduled tribes
(b) Atal Vayo Abhyuday Yojana – 2. Minorities
(c) Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram Yojana – 3. Scheduled castes
(d) Pradhan Mantri Janjantiya Vikas Mission – 4. Senior citizens
(A) (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-2
(B) (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1
(C) (a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-3
(D) (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-1
55. The Justice Party was established in the year 1916 by whom?
(A) T.M. Nair and Thiyagaraya Chetty
(B) P. Rangaiah Naidu and P. Ananda Charlu
(C) Chidambaram Pillai and Subramania Siva
(D) Jotirao Phule and Ram Mohan Roy
56. Arrange the event in Chronological order
(1) South Indian liberal Federation was formed
(2) Madras United League was renamed as Madras Dravidian Association
(3) Periyar E.V.R. transformed the Justice Party into Dravidar Kazhagam
(4) The Ministry of A. Subbarayalu Reddiar fought against the Swarajya Party
(A) (2), (4), (1), (3)
(B) (2), (1), (4), (3)
(C) (1), (2), (4), (3)
(D) (1), (2), (3), (4)
57. The following statements are about the Tamil Nadu Government’s initiatives : Find the correct statements.
(a) Allocation of 5 crores to translate all the works of Annal Ambedkar into Tamil through Tamil Development Department
(b) 10 crores for establishment of Tamil Parapurai Kazhagam
(c) Allocation of 5 crore for creation of separate department of Tamil Literature in JNU, Delhi
(d) 30 lakhs financial support for Theera Kaadhal Thirukural Project
(A) (a) and (b) only
(B) (a) and (c) only
(C) (a) and (d) only
(D) (c) and (d) only
58. “Over half of India’s GDP comes from rural India and almost two thirds of rural GDP comes from non-farm activities. Despite this, there are too many people engaged in low productivity occupations, and a lot more work of better, predictable nature is needed to enable a better life for rural India’s inhabitants, especially the young”.
What can be inferred from the above statement about the economic contribution of rural India to the overall GDP?
(A) Rural India contributes less than half of India’s GDP
(B) Rural India contributes more than half of India’s GDP, but its economy heavily depends on farm activities
(C) The GDP of rural India is solely driven by agricultural activities
(D) Rural India contributes more than half of India’s GDP, and a significant portion comes from non-farm activities
59. Which of the following statements are true about “The Chief Minister’s Breakfast Scheme”?
(i) It has increased student attendance to high schools
(ii) Primary school children benefit from the scheme
(iii) The scheme has led to improvement in learning skills among children
(iv) The scheme is limited to government schools only
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (iv) only
(D) (ii) and (iv) only
60. Match the four engines of development in the Budget 2025-2026 :
(a) 1st Engine – 1. MSMEs
(b) 2nd Engine – 2. Export
(c) 3rd Engine – 3. Agriculture
(d) 4th Engine – 4. Investment in people
(A) (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-4
(B) (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-2
(C) (a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-1
(D) (a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-4, (d)-1
61. Which of the following statement(s) are correct about “Tamil Pudhalvan” Scheme?
(i) Launched on October 2024.
(ii) Improve the financial status of all male students studying in government school after school education.
(iii) Monthly financial assistance of Rs. 1,000.
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (i) and (iii) only
62. Why Business Firms choose Tamil Nadu as their preferred destination for investment?
(A) The State of the Art Infrastructure
(B) Tax Concessions
(C) More number of unemployed
(D) More number of graduates
63. Name the scheme, a Tri-ministerial effort which includes Women and Child Development, Health and Family Welfare and Human Resource Development.
(A) Integrated Child Development Scheme
(B) Child Development Scheme
(C) Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Scheme
(D) Smart City Mission
64. Assertion [A] : During 2001 to 2026, for the states Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh, the population is expected to increase by 45-55%.
Reason [R] : More than half of demographic transition is expected during that period.
(A) [A] is true, [R] is false
(B) [R] is true, [A] is false
(C) Both [A] and [R] are true; but [R] is not correct explanation of [A]
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
65. Assertion [A] : The demographic dividend is defined as a rise in the rate of Economic growth due to a rising share of working age people in a population.
Reason [R] : India is in the midst of process where it faces the window of opportunity created by Demographic Dividend.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false, [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct
66. Match with the schemes and its main focus :
(a) PMGSY – 1. Focus on rural youth between the age of 15 to 35 years from poor families
(b) DDUGKY – 2. Sustainable livelihood opportunities
(c) NRLM – 3. Rural connectivity
(d) MGNREGA – 4. Livelihood security in rural areas
(A) (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4
(B) (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-4
(C) (a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1
(D) (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-4, (d)-3
67. Match the following :
Water Conservation Programmes and States
States – Programmes
(a) Andhra Pradesh – 1. Jal Jeevan Hariyali
(b) Bihar – 2. Neeru – Chettu
(c) Gujarat – 3. Jal Hi Jeevan Hai
(d) Haryana – 4. Sujalam Sufalam Jal Sanchay Abhiyan
(A) (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-3
(B) (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4
(C) (a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3
(D) (a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-3
68. Assertion [A] : There has been a significant rise in the percentage of labour force engaged in Industrial sector during 1990s and 2000s.
Reason [R] : There has been a significant rise in employment in the construction sector between 1991 and 2011.
(A) [A] is true, but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false, [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
69. Which of the following is not the function of the Finance Commission in India?
(A) Preparation of Union budget
(B) The distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the union and the states
(C) Recommend the principles which should govern the Grants-in-aid
(D) Any other matter to be referred to the President to promote sound finance
70. Which of the following statement is true?
(1) Increasing Bank rate policy reduces borrowing among businessmen
(2) To control inflation RBI increases bank rate policy
(3) Bank rate policy helps to control increasing price of goods
(A) Statement (2) and (3) are correct
(B) Statement (1) and (2) are correct
(C) Statement (1) and (3) are correct
(D) Statement (1), (2) and (3) are correct
71. Match the following :
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru – 1. People’s plan
(b) S.N. Agarwal – 2. Sarvodhaya plan
(c) J.P. Narayan – 3. Gandhian plan
(d) M.N. Roy – 4. National Planning Commission
(A) (a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1
(B) (a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-1
(C) (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1
(D) (a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-2
72. Achieved growth rate of Eleventh Five Year plan is
(A) 8.2%
(B) 9.0%
(C) 10.0%
(D) 7.0%
73. According to Ragner Nurkse the starting point and continuation for development lies in __________.
(A) Organised money market
(B) Increasing the rate of capital formation
(C) Technological growth
(D) Removal of dualistic economy
74. When one sees the person who taught not forgetting what they taught is dealt in the chapter
(A) Detectives
(B) Hopefulness in Trouble
(C) Tyranny of rule
(D) Benignity (perspective)
75. “Ozhukkaaraak Kolka Oruvandhan Nenjaththu Azhukkaaru Iladha Iyalpu”. What is the meaning of the word “Azhukkaaru”?
(A) Love
(B) Submissive
(C) Jealous
(D) Good Character
76. Pick out the incorrectly paired from the following :
(1) 1962 – The Madras State (Alteration of Name) Act was passed by the Parliament
(2) 1967 – Perarignar Anna Sworn in as the Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu
(3) 1968 – Perarignar Anna was elected to the Rajya Sabha
(4) 1969 – The Madras State (Alteration of Name) Act came into force
(A) (1) only incorrect
(B) (1) and (2) are incorrect
(C) (1) and (3) are incorrect
(D) (1) and (4) are incorrect
77. Find out the rightly matched pair/s from the following and choose the correct answer from the code given.
(1) 1925 – Periyar EVR started the periodical ‘Kudi Arasu’
(2) 1928 – The English periodical ‘Revolt’ was started
(3) 1934 – Periyar published ‘Viduthalai’ as a Tamil Daily Newspaper
(4) 1937 – Periyar brought out the Tamil Weekly ‘Pagutharivu’
Codes
(A) Only (1) and (2) are correct
(B) Only (1) and (3) are correct
(C) Only (4) is correct
(D) Only (1), (2) and (4) are correct
78. Assertion [A] : Tamilnadu Women Conference held on 13.11.1938 at Chennai under the leadership of T. Neelambikai Ammaiyar.
Reason [R] : This conference passed a resolution for abolition of caste discrimination and the title “Periyar” was conferred on E.V. Ramasamy by this Tamil Nadu Women Conference.
(A) [A] is true [R] is false
(B) [A] is false and [R] is false
(C) [A] is false [R] is true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
(D) [A] is true and [R] is true
79. Match correctly books/journals with authors
(a) The Mirror of the year – 1. A.P. Patro
(b) History of the Justice Party – 2. N.S. Elango
(c) From Sir Theagarayar to Dr. Kalaignar – 3. Muthusami Pillai
(d) Justice Movement – 4. A.R. Mudaliar
(A) (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1
(B) (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4
(C) (a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1
(D) (a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-4
80. The members of the Justice Party were sent to meet Joint select committee in London for finalise Government India Act in 1919
(i) Arcot Ramasamy Mudaliyar
(ii) Koka Apparao
(iii) T.A. Ramalingam
(iv) S.K. Thulasiram
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii), (ii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iv)
81. Choose the right matches among type.
(1) Krishnabai Nimbkar – Madras Youth League
(2) Rukmini Lakshmipathi – President of the Madras Women’s Students Organisation
(3) Antony Ammal – Pankaja Textile Mill
(4) Manjubhashini – Acting President of the Tamil Nadu Congress Committee during Quit India Movement
(A) (1) and (3) are correct
(B) (1) and (2) are correct
(C) (2) and (3) are correct
(D) (3) and (4) are correct
82. Assertion [A] : The company asked the Collector of Ramnad to Summon Kattabomman to his office at Ramnad.
Reason [R] : Kattabomman was asked to meet the Collector in connection with the arrears of tribute that he owed to the company.
(A) [A] is true [R] is true
(B) Both [A] and [R] is false
(C) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is correct explanation of [A]
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is not correct explanation of [A]
83. Arrange the following events in chronological order :
(1) Salt Satyagraha
(2) Swadeshi Movement
(3) Quit India Movement
(4) Non Co-operation Movement
(A) (1), (2), (4), (3)
(B) (4), (3), (2), (1)
(C) (2), (3), (1), (4)
(D) (2), (4), (1), (3)
84. Identify the person who uttered that, “Nothing can be done without shedding of blood. Japan was prepared to sacrifice 20,000 men and gained a victory over Russia. If 15 crores of Indians do the same, “Swaraj will be obtained”.
(A) V.O. Chidambaram Pillai
(B) Subramania Siva
(C) Subramania Bharathi
(D) Vanchi Aiyar
85. Choose the right matches among type :
- Porpanaikottai – A sangam age fort
- Iron Knife – Pallavaram
- Merchant Guild Inscription – Mayiladumparai
- Sarcophagus – Marungur
(A) 1 and 3 are correct
(B) 1 and 2 are correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correct
(D) 3 and 4 are correct
86. Arrange the following with reference to different stages of human development :
- The Nomadic stage
- The pastoral stage
- The hunting stage
- The agricultural stage
(A) 2, 3, 1, 4
(B) 1, 4, 3, 2
(C) 3, 1, 2, 4
(D) 4, 1, 2, 3
87. ‘The Ocean of birth swims, swims and does not join the Lord’ – What is the philosophy of this Kural?
(A) Siva Philosophy
(B) Vidhya Philosophy
(C) Surrender Philosophy
(D) Soul Philosophy
88. Thirukkural Uraiasiriarkal :
(i) Pariperumal
(ii) Dharumar
(iii) Ki.Va.Ja
(iv) Dhandapani Thesigar
(A) (i) only
(B) (i), (ii) only
(C) (iii) and (iv) only
(D) (iv) only
89. Assertion [A] : That is the land or country which forces free from fierce famine, wasting plague and ravages of enemies
Reason [R] : Poets consider it their primary duty to wish the country and wish for the development of its people. They want all countries to be special, not just their own.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) [A] is false but [R] is true
(C) Both [A] and [R] are true, [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
90. Which of the following statements are true?
- All the religions were accepted and appreciated in Thirukkural
- Every religions ratified the views of Thiruvalluvar
- He didn’t believe morality
- Valluvar said that men with high principles deserved to live as.
(A) 1 and 2 only correct
(B) 2 and 3 only correct
(C) 2 and 4 only correct
(D) 3 and 4 only correct
91. Arrange the following in order :
- The goodness of the help to domestic life
- The possession of love
- Domestic life
- The obtaining of sons
(A) 3, 1, 4, 2
(B) 2, 3, 1, 4
(C) 1, 2, 4, 3
(D) 3, 1, 2, 4
92. Which book features the series “Pagaivar pull Aarga”?
(A) Natrinai
(B) Kalitthogai
(C) Aingkurunuru
(D) Purananuru
93. Who gave special importance to Village Administration?
(A) Cheras
(B) Cholas
(C) Pandyas
(D) Pallavas
94. Assertion [A] : Some poets live on their prize money. Most of the poets have their own professions. They don’t depend on prizes.
Reason [R] : When poets who make a living out of their prizes get prizes of low value / below their expectation; they reject it.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct
(C) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(D) [A] is false, [R] is true
95. One man, 3 women and 4 boys can do a piece of work in 96 hours, 2 men and 8 boys can do it in 80 hours, 2 men and 3 women can do it in 120 hours then 5 men and 12 boys can do it in
(A) 39 1/11 hours
(B) 42 7/11 hours
(C) 43 7/11 hours
(D) 44 hours
96. The diagonal of a rectangle is thrice its smaller side. The ratio of the length to the breadth of the rectangle is
(A) 3 : 1
(B) √3 : 1
(C) √2 : 1
(D) 2√2 : 1
97. If x : 7.5 = 8 : y = 7 : 17.5 find x : y
(A) 3 : 22
(B) 1 : 7
(C) 3 : 20
(D) 3 : 23
98. If Rs. 1,600 is divided among P and Q in the ratio 5 : 3 then Q’s share is
(A) 900
(B) 600
(C) 1000
(D) 1200
99. L.C.M. of (2x² – 3xy)², (4x – 6y)³ and (8x³ – 27y³) is ________?
(A) 2x(2x-3y)²(4x² + 6xy + 9y²)
(B) 2³x²(2x-3y)³(4x² + 6xy + 9y²)
(C) 2³x²(2x-3y)³(4x² + 6xy + 9y²)
(D) 2³x²(2x-3y)²(4x + 6xy + 9y)
100. Peter got 30% of the maximum marks in an examination and failed by 10 marks. However, Paul who took the same examination got 40% of the total marks and got 15 marks more than the passing marks. What were the passing marks in the examination?
(A) 35
(B) 65
(C) 85
(D) 70
101. Akila scored 80% of marks in an examination. If her score was 576 marks then find the maximum marks of the examination
(A) 720
(B) 620
(C) 820
(D) 710
102. Find the next term.
0.5, 0.6, 1.5, 4, 8.9, _____.
(A) 12.6
(B) 13.5
(C) 14.3
(D) 17.0
103. A, B, C, D, E and F are cousins. No two cousins are of the same age but all have birthdays on the same date. The youngest is 17 years old and the oldest E is 22. F is somewhere between B and D in age. A is older than B. C is older than D. Which of the following is not possible?
(A) D is 20 years old
(B) F is 18 years old
(C) F is 19 years old
(D) F is 20 years old
104. In a dice, if 2 is adjacent to 3, 5 and 6, then which of the following is necessarily true?
(A) 3 is adjacent to 6
(B) 1 is adjacent to 4
(C) 2 is adjacent to 4
(D) 2 is adjacent to 1
105. Five girls are sitting in a row. Rosy is not adjacent to Sivanandhini and Abi. Anuradha is not adjacent to Sivanandhini. Rosy is adjacent to Monika. Monika is at the middle in the row. Then, Anuradha is adjacent to whom out of the following?
(A) Rosy
(B) Sivanandhini
(C) Monika
(D) Cannot be determined
106. One Rutherford is equal to
(A) 10⁸ disintegrations per second
(B) 10⁴ disintegrations per second
(C) 10⁶ disintegrations per second
(D) 1 disintegrations per second
107. Kessler syndrome refers to
(A) Radio Frequency Interference in space
(B) Light Pollution in space
(C) Accumulation satellite fragments, spent rocket stages and other discarded materials in space
(D) Formation of Cirrus, Cumulus, Cumulo Nimbus clouds that distracts the light penetration
108. Assertion [A] : University students think more critically about the new subjects and situation they encounter.
Reason [R] : University professors encourage conceptual learning and understanding of the new subject concepts at the primary levels.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false but [R] is true
(D) [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
109. Match the following and find out the correct sequence.
(a) Abiotic component – 1. The crushed cane after extraction of juice
(b) Bagasse – 2. Animals that feed on other animals
(c) Carcinogen – 3. Non-living component in an eco system
(d) Carnivorous – 4. Toxic organic compound causing cancer
(A) (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4
(B) (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1
(C) (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-2
(D) (a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-3
110. Assertion [A] : Overloading of Nitrogen in the environment can cause an imbalance to the natural nitrogen cycle.
Reason [R] : Nitrogen becomes a pollutant when it escapes into the environment and reacts with other organic compounds.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false, [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
111. Which of the following caused by earthquake?
(i) Lightning
(ii) Landslide
(iii) Thundering
(iv) Tsunami
(v) Floods
(A) (ii), (iv) and (v)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii) only
(D) (ii) and (v)
112. Match the following :
Column I (Waste Disposal Method) – Column II (Process)
(a) Sanitary landfills – 1. Burning of waste
(b) Incineration – 2. Deposit the refuse and compost it with bulldozers
(c) Pulverizing – 3. Combustion in absence of oxygen
(d) Pyrolysis – 4. Spreading the waste on fields.
(A) (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-4
(B) (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-3
(C) (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4
(D) (a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1
113. Choose the incorrect answer of forest types and their species in India.
(1) Evergreen forest – Rose wood, Toon, Ebony, Gurjan
(2) Monsoon forest – Silver fir, Walnut, Deodar, White Willow
(3) Tropical forest – Chir, Blue Pine, Spruce, Cypress
(A) (1) only
(B) (1) and (3) only
(C) (2) only
(D) (2) and (3) only
114. Consider the statements on monsoon and choose the right answer
(i) Most monsoon rainfall is caused by the depression over Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal.
(ii) The amount of rainfall increases with increasing distance from the sea shore.
(iii) The eastern coastal area of Tamil Nadu remains dry during South West monsoon.
(A) (i) is true
(B) (i) and (iii) are true
(C) (ii) and (iii) are true
(D) (i) and (ii) are true
115. Match correctly the Nationalist Papers and its Authors :
(a) Subramaniya Bharathi – 1. Swadesamithran
(b) Mrs. Annie Besant – 2. Madras Mahajana Sabha
(c) G. Subramanya Iyer – 3. India
(d) P. Anandacharlu – 4. New India
(A) (a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-4
(B) (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-2
(C) (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2
(D) (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-3
116. Match the following :
(a) Home Rule Movement – 1. S. Ambujammal
(b) Kudi Arasu – 2. Annie Besant
(c) Women’s Swadeshi League – 3. Muthulakshmi Reddy
(d) Abolition of Devadasi system – 4. E.V. Ramasamy
(A) (a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3
(B) (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-1
(C) (a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-2
(D) (a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-4
117. Arrange the Conquests of Iltutmish in Chronological order :
(1) Bengal
(2) Bilsa Fort
(3) Gwalior
(4) Ranthambhor
(A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(B) (1), (3), (4), (2)
(C) (4), (1), (3), (2)
(D) (4), (3), (2), (1)
118. Which of the following statements are true about the Houses at Mohenjo-daro?
(i) It was discovered in Montgomery District of Punjab.
(ii) Mohenjo-daro the houses were made of Kiln-burnt bricks.
(iii) Kiln-burnt bricks in large quantities were used for drains.
(A) (i) and (iii) only
(B) (i) only
(C) (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (ii) only
119. Pick out the incorrectly paired from the following :
(1) Smoke and Ashes : Opium’s Hidden Histories – Amitav Ghosh
(2) The Golden Road – William Dalrymple
(3) Twilight Prisoners : The Rise of the Hindu Right and the Decline of India – Minakshi Dewan
(4) The Final Farewell : Understanding the Last Rites and Rituals of India’s Major Faiths – Siddhartha Deb
(A) (1) and (4) are incorrect
(B) (1) and (2) are incorrect
(C) (2) and (3) are incorrect
(D) (3) and (4) are incorrect
120. Reason and Assertion type :
Assertion [A] : In 1946, the Muslim League withdrew its acceptance to the Cabinet Mission Plan.
Reason [R] : The Muslim League joined the interim government formed in 1946.
(A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is true, but [R] is false
(D) [A] is false, but [R] is true
121. Assertion [A] : DMK played a leading role in the Anti-Hindi campaign.
Reason [R] : It urged people to write under the Tamil identity.
(A) [A] is true, but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false, [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
122. On 24th September 1932, Poona pact was signed between
(A) Gandhi – Irwin
(B) Gandhi – Jinnah
(C) Gandhi – Ambedkar
(D) Gandhi – Ramsay Mac Donald
123. Choose the right matches :
(1) Ferosha Metha – Disciple of Gokhale
(2) Gopala Krishna Gokhale – Servants of India Society
(3) Dadabhai Naoroji – Drain Theory
(4) S.N. Banerjee – Safety Valve Theory
(A) (2) and (3) are correct
(B) (1) and (2) are correct
(C) (2) and (4) are correct
(D) (3) and (4) are correct
124. Match correctly the Excavated materials with their corresponding Excavation place :
(a) Shell Bangles – 1. Azhagankulam
(b) Ring Well – 2. Thulukkar patti
(c) Roman Coins – 3. Kezhadi
(d) Silver Stamps – 4. Vembakottai
(A) (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-4
(B) (a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-2
(C) (a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-4
(D) (a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-3
125. Reason and Assertion type :
Assertion [A] : Muhammad Ghur attacked the Fortress of Tabarhind, a strategic point for the Chauhans of Ajmer.
Reason [R] : The Ruler of Ajmer Prithvi Raj Chauhan marched to Tabarhinda and faced the invader in the first Battle of Tarain (1191)
(A) [A] is true, but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false, [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A], [A] only is correct
126. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
- Right to Privacy – Justice K.S. Puttaswamy Rtd. Vs. Union of India
- Passive Euthanesia – Common cause (Regd. Society) Vs. Union of India
- Right to Vote – Ministry of Defence Vs. Babita Puniya
- NOTA in Elections – Swapnil Tripathi Vs. Supreme Court of India
(A) 1 and 3 are correct
(B) 1 and 2 are correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correct
(D) 3 and 4 are correct
127. With reference to the functional items placed within the purview of municipalities, consider the following.
(i) Regulation of slaughter houses and tanneries
(ii) Safeguarding the interests of weaker sections of society
(iii) Small-scale industries, including food processing industries
(iv) Technical training and vocational education.
Which of the above is/are correct statements?
(A) (i) and (iv) are correct
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(D) (i) and (ii) are correct
128. The Union Executive consists of the
- Council of Ministers
- President of India
- Central Secretariat
- Vice President
Choose the correct answer by using the code given below :
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
129. What is the definition of a child under the POCSO Act?
(A) Below 14 years of age
(B) Below 16 years of age
(C) Below 18 years of age
(D) Below 21 years of age
130. Assertion [A] : Every Citizen shall have the right to move freely throughout the Territory of India or to reside and settle in any part of the country.
Reason [R] : This Right shall be subject to restrictions imposed by the state in the interests of the general public or for the protection of the interests of any Scheduled Caste.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct
131. Which of the following statements is incorrect about India’s Act East Policy?
(A) This policy promotes proactive diplomacy with political and military intervention to curb insurgency in the Asia-Pacific region
(B) This policy was originally conceived as an economic initiative
(C) This policy focuses on the extend neighbourhood in Asia-Pacific region
(D) This policy promotes enhanced connectivity to Asia-Pacific region through North-Eastern Region
132. The objective of the National Human Rights Commission are :
(i) To strengthen the institutional arrangements through which human rights issues could be addressed in their entirety in a more focussed manner
(ii) To look into allegations of excesses, independently of the government
(iii) To contrast and strengthen the efforts that have already been made in this direction.
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) (i) and (ii) are correct
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are incorrect
133. Match the following (Women Empowerment)
Name of the Act – Enacted Year
(a) Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act – 1. 2013
(b) National Food Security Act – 2. 2016
(c) Rights of persons with Disabilities Act – 3. 2017
(d) Mental Health Care Act – 4. 1971
(A) (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4
(B) (a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-3
(C) (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-4
(D) (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-1
134. Which of the following is correctly pair/pairs?
- Fifth Law Commission – K.V.K. Sundaram
- Tenth Law Commission – Justice K.K. Mathew
- Nineteenth Law Commission – Justice M. Jagannadha Rao
- Twentieth Law Commission – B.S. Chauhan
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
135. Assertion [A] : Art. 121 prohibits any discussion in parliament with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties.
Reason [R] : The objective of Art. 121 is to ensure the independence and dignity of the Judiciary.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false; [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct
136. Assertion [A] : Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the concurrent list or state list
Reason [R] : VIII schedule of the constitution contains union list, state list and concurrent list
(A) [A] is true, but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false but [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true; but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
137. Match the Article :
(a) Audit and Accounts of Panchayats – 1. 243 A
(b) Reservation of seats – 2. 243 J
(c) Elections to the Panchayats – 3. 243 D
(d) Gram Sabha – 4. 243 K
(A) (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1
(B) (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-1
(C) (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-3
(D) (a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-3
138. The False statements about the Legislative powers of the President are
(i) The Punchhi Commission has recommended that whenever any state bill is sent to the President for his assent under Article 201, he should give his assent within a period of fifteen days.
(ii) Article 111 of the constitution gives details regarding the President’s role in the law making.
(iii) The President is given the right to promulgate ordinances under Article 123.
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (ii) only
(D) (ii) and (iii) only
139. Match the following :
(a) Justice should not be denied to anyone based on the grounds of Economic (or) financial setbacks – 1. Article 42
(b) Establishment of Gram Panchayat by providing needful powers to these self governing units – 2. Article 43
(c) Favorable, Humanitarite situation to work and to provide maternity benefits to women – 3. Article 39 A
(d) To ensure work, pay, favourable climate to Agricultural (or) Skillful Labourers – 4. Article 40
(A) (a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1
(B) (a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-4
(C) (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2
(D) (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1
140. Which of the following statements is true about Article 21?
(i) This article reminds us of one of the famous clauses in Magna Carta.
(ii) The constitution does not confer right to die.
(iii) Custodial death is perhaps one of the worst crimes in a civilized society governed by Administrative Law.
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (i) and (iii) only
(D) (ii) and (iii) only
141. Read the following Assertion [A] and Reason [R] and find the correct answer :
Assertion [A] : Considering apart from, citizenship among in India, there are two types of Aliens, Friendly Aliens and Enemy Aliens.
Reason [R] : The citizens of enemy Aliens also enjoys protection against arrest and detention under Article 22.
(A) [A] and [R] are correct; [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(B) [A] and [R] are correct; [R] is not correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is correct; [R] is false
(D) [R] is correct; [A] is false
142. Match the following parts of the Indian Constitution with their corresponding subject-matter.
(a) Part XIV – 1. Elections
(b) Part XV – 2. Amendment of the Constitution
(c) Part XVIII – 3. Services under the Union and States
(d) Part XX – 4. Emergency provisions
(A) (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-2
(B) (a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3
(C) (a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-3
(D) (a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-3, (d)-2
143. “Co-operative Societies” gave a constitutional status under
(A) Article 243 – ZH to 243 – ZT
(B) Article 243 – PH to 243 – ZA
(C) Article 243 – NH to 243 – ZH
(D) Article 243 – HZ to 243 – ZH
144. Match the List I with List II :
(a) Jal Jeevan Mission – 1. 2014
(b) Beti Bachao Betipadhao – 2. 2019
(c) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan – 3. 1995
(d) National Social Assistance Programme – 4. 2015
(A) (a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3
(B) (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-4
(C) (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4
(D) (a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-1
145. Consider the following statements about Women Helpline. Which among the following statement is incorrect?
(A) Provide toll-free 24 hours telecom service to women affected by conflicts seeking support and information
(B) Facilitate crisis and non-crisis intervention through referral to the appropriate agencies
(C) Provide information about appropriate support services, government schemes available to the women affected by violence
(D) Provide integrated support and assistance to women affected by violence in public spaces only
146. What are the objectives of public distribution system?
(i) It is based on income status
(ii) It focuses on the families of Military Personnel
(iii) It ensures by making available essential commodities of good quality at affordable Prices every month
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) only
(C) (i) and (iii) only
(D) (iii) only
147. The amount given under the Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy Maternity Benefit Scheme has been increased since 2018 to Rs. ________
(A) 18,000/-
(B) 24,000/-
(C) 12,000/-
(D) 32,000/-
148. Match the welfare schemes with its beneficiaries.
(a) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) – 1. Farmers (especially small and marginal farmers)
(b) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) – 2. Women from rural and remote areas
(c) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) – 3. Low-income households and economically weaker sections
(d) Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) – 4. Rural households living Below the Poverty Line (BPL)
(A) (a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-4, (d)-1
(B) (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-4
(C) (a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-2
(D) (a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-2
149. Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
(1) CDI – Child Development Index
(2) ABC – Achievements of Basic Children Needs
(3) MPI – Multidimensional Poverty Index
(4) HDI – Human Development Identification
(A) (2) and (4)
(B) (1) and (3)
(C) (1) and (4)
(D) (2) and (3)
150. Who introduced the modified scheme of elementary education which provided part-time learning of hereditary occupations?
(A) K. Kamaraj
(B) C. Rajagopalachari
(C) T. Prakasam
(D) Raja of Panagal
151. Choose the right matches :
(1) Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission – Integrated Cluster Action Plans
(2) Saansad Adharsh Gram Yojana – Skill training to global standards
(3) Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan – E-governance in Panchayats
(4) Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana – Poverty alleviation through SHGs
(A) (1) and (2) are correct
(B) (1) and (3) are correct
(C) (2) and (3) are correct
(D) (1) and (4) are correct
152. Which among the following is incorrectly paired?
(i) Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana – Construction of hostels for SC students
(ii) Atal Vayo Abhyuday Yojana – Improving the quality of life of senior citizens
(iii) Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram – Socio economic development of refugees
(iv) Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Vikas Mission – Strengthening tribal entrepreneurship
(A) (ii) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (iii) only
(D) (iv) only
153. Find the elements of India’s climate action :
(i) Net-Zero Emissions by 2070
(ii) Increase Non-Fossil Energy Capacity and Renewable energy share
(iii) Planting trees and stopping deforestation
(iv) Reduce Carbon Intensity and Carbon Emissions
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
154. Assertion [A] : A recent study by the World Health Organization (WHO) commissioned by the Jal Shakti Ministry reported that Jal Jeevan Mission would succeed in averting close to 4,00,000 deaths from diarrheal diseases, saving approximately 14 million DALYS.
Reason [R] : It is envisioned by the Department of Drinking water and sanitation to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap connections by 2024 to all households in rural India.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false, [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
155. Match the following :
Schemes – Beneficiary
(a) Kalaignar Magalir Urimai Thittam – 1. Woman to travel in Govt. bus at free of cost
(b) Tamil Puthalvan – 2. Woman college students who studied in Govt. schools till 12th standard
(c) Vidiyal Payanam – 3. Woman head in a family
(d) Pudumai Penn Thittam – 4. College students who one studying in Government and Government aided colleges
(A) (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2
(B) (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-3
(C) (a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-4
(D) (a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-1
156. Assertion [A] : Tamil Nadu Government replaced Rupee symbol (₹) with Tamil letter (ரூ) in its budget 2025-26.
Reason [R] : To ensure the widespread development of Tamil Nadu to benefit all.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true; but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct
(C) [A] is false, [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
157. Match the following :
(a) District with highest sex ratio – 1. Theni
(b) District with lowest sex ratio – 2. The Nilgiris
(c) District with highest child sex ratio – 3. Cuddalore
(d) District with lowest child sex ratio – 4. The Nilgiris
(A) (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-3
(B) (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-3, (d)-4
(C) (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-4
(D) (a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3
158. Tamil Nadu Chief Minister’s Solar Powered Green House Scheme (CMSPGHS) was launched for the benefit of the
(A) Poor in rural areas
(B) Poor in the semi urban areas
(C) Poor in the small town
(D) Salaried class people
159. Due to Global warming the following ____________ are badly affected.
(i) Agriculture and Environment
(ii) Agriculture and Industry
(iii) Agriculture, Horticulture and Environment
(iv) Industry
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (iii) alone
(D) (i) and (iv)
160. Which of the following statements are true about Child Development Index (CDI)?
(i) CDI was developed by the ‘Save the Children’ campaign.
(ii) Health, Nutrition and Education are the three indicators conventionally used for measuring CDI.
(iii) CDI is calculated in the same way as that of HDI.
(A) (ii) and (iii) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (i) and (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
161. Assertion [A] : The poverty line is determined on the basis of calorie requirements.
Reason [R] : The poverty line is the minimum income required to meet the basic needs of an individual which includes food, clothing and shelter.
(A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(B) [A] is true but [R] is false
(C) [A] is false but [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
162. Arrange the following programmes in chronological order :
(1) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Gramin
(2) Deen Dayal Upadhayaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana
(3) Pradhan Manthri Gram Sadak Yojana
(4) Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan
(A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(B) (3), (1), (2), (4)
(C) (3), (4), (1), (2)
(D) (3), (2), (1), (4)
163. The main aim of MUDRA Bank is to ________
(i) Provide financial assistance to develop Health Industry.
(ii) Provide credit to Micro, Small and Medium enterprises.
(iii) Provide Credit to develop Tourism Industry.
(iv) Provide financial assistance to rural development.
(A) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(B) (ii) alone
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (ii)
164. Arrange chronological order/event :
(1) Mahalwari system
(2) Ryotwari system
(3) Zamindari system
(4) Gramdan movement
(A) (4), (3), (2), (1)
(B) (3), (2), (4), (1)
(C) (3), (2), (1), (4)
(D) (2), (1), (3), (4)
165. Which of the following statements are true about the Fifteenth Finance Commission?
(i) The criterion of demographic performance has been introduced
(ii) The criterion of Fiscal Discipline is given 10% weightage
(iii) The criterion of Forest cover is replaced with Forest and Ecology
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
166. Identify the correct statement
(a) The rate at which the RBI is willing to borrow from the commercial banks is called reverse repo rate
(b) If the RBI increases repo rate, it makes borrowing expensive for banks vice versa
(c) Repo rate is a tool to control inflation
(d) A lower reverse repo rate decrease inflation
(A) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(B) (b), (c) and (d) are correct
(C) (a), (c) and (d) are correct
(D) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
167. Which of the following statements are/is true about “Niti Aayog”?
(i) Niti Aayog has been instituted to replace the Planning Commission
(ii) It has no power to allocate funds
(iii) Niti Aayog is a think-tank
(iv) President of India is the Chairperson of Niti Aayog
(A) (ii) and (iv)
(B) (iv) only
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
168. Choose the right answer among type :
(i) The Ashoka’s Inscription was found at Brahmagiri.
(ii) Chinnamanur Seppedu mentioned Thalaiyalanganathu Pandian Nedunchezhien.
(iii) Thirukkovilur Inscription mentions the death of Avvayar, which was published by T.A. Gopinathanayar.
(iv) Ancient inscriptions not available in Karnataka till AD 10.
(A) (i) and (iii) only right
(B) (ii) and (iv) only right
(C) (i) and (ii) only right
(D) (iii) and (iv) only right
169. Assertion [A] : C.N. Annadurai was fascinated by the self respect movement, joined the Dravidar Kazhagam Party.
Reason [R] : C.N. Annadurai treated Justice Party and Dravidar Kazhagam equally.
(A) [A] is true, [R] is false
(B) [A] and [R] are true, [R] is correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false, [R] is true
(D) [A] and [R] are true, [R] is not correct explanation of [A]
170. Which of the following statements are true regarding Vellore Mutiny?
(i) The Mutiny was lasted for eight hours.
(ii) The Mutiny was lost its importance due to local treachery.
(iii) After the Mutiny, the family of Tippu was transferred to Madras.
(iv) The British captured more than 2000 Indian Soldiers.
(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
171. Arrange the following events in their chronological order.
(1) Periyar published the book ‘Pen Yaen Adimaiyaanaal’.
(2) Periyar started the Tamil bimonthly ‘Unmai’ at Tiruchirappalli.
(3) Periyar was arrested for publishing a Tamil translation of Bhagat Singh’s pamphlet ‘Why I am An Atheist’.
(4) The title ‘Periyar’ was conferred by the Tamilnadu Women Conference held in Madras.
(A) (1), (3), (4), (2)
(B) (1), (4), (3), (2)
(C) (4), (1), (2), (3)
(D) (4), (3), (2), (1)
172. Which of the following statement/s is/are true about the rationalist marriage system ‘Self Respect Marriage’, devised by Periyar?
(i) The Self Respect Marriages were conducted without any priests or chanting of the rituals in Sanskrit.
(ii) They were often deliberately conducted in times considered auspicious.
(iii) They did away with thali-tying ceremony.
(iv) The couples took oaths promising to treat each other equally and as friends.
(A) (i) and (iii) only
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
173. Assertion [A] : Justice Party opposed the Home Rule Movement of Annie Besant.
Reason [R] : Justice Party feared that Dominion status would give more powers to the Brahmins.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false but [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
174. Arrange the following events in chronological order.
(1) Kamarajar in Vaikam Agitation
(2) Thirunelveli riot
(3) Madras Mahajana Sabha
(4) Swadesi Sangam
(A) (2), (3), (1), (4)
(B) (3), (4), (2), (1)
(C) (4), (2), (1), (3)
(D) (1), (3), (4), (2)
175. Which of the following statements are true about Anjalai Ammal?
(1) Anjalai Ammal was pregnant while in prison
(2) Anjalai Ammal born in Chennai took active part in Neil Statue protest
(3) Husband of Anjalai Ammal was not interested to participate in freedom movement
(4) Anjalai Ammal served as Congress MLA from 1937 to 1946
(A) (1), (4)
(B) (2), (3)
(C) (3), (4)
(D) (1), (2)
176. Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
(1) Sir Thomas Munro – Licensing Act of 1857
(2) Sir Charles Metcalfe – Liberator of the Indian Press
(3) Lord Wellesley – Printers name at the bottom of the paper
(4) Lord Canning – System of License and Censorship
(A) (1) and (4)
(B) (1) and (2)
(C) (2) and (3)
(D) (3) and (4)
177. Which of the following statement is/are correct about Vaikam Protest?
(1) George Joseph of Kerala acted as the mastermind in the Vaikam Protest.
(2) Gandhi had difference of opinion about the involvement of Christian George Joseph in the untouchability issue.
(3) Statue of George Joseph was erected at Madurai.
(4) George Joseph and Karur Neelakandan were not interested to join Periyar on Vaikam Protest.
(A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(B) (1), (2), (3)
(C) (1), (2)
(D) (3) only
178. Match correctly :
(a) Kolliporai coins – 1. Pandya Kings
(b) Peruvaluthi coins – 2. Chera Kings
(c) Bead Making Industry – 3. Kangayam
(d) Textile Industry – 4. Mohenjodaro
(A) (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-4
(B) (a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-4
(C) (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-4, (d)-3
(D) (a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-3
179. Reason and Assertion type :
Assertion [A] : Archaeological excavations conducted in Pattanam, Ernakulam, Kerala unearthed signs of early Roman trade.
Reason [R] : The excavation proved that Pattanam was a part of Muziris, the port city of the Sangam Cheras.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
180. Match the following customs with literature :
(a) A custom performed by an unrequited Lover – 1. Kuruntogai
(b) A custom of mixing Palmyra, sugarcane juice with coconut water – 2. Manimegalai
(c) Custom of offering crow with white rice and Ghee – 3. Tholkappiam
(d) The custom of painting the walls of private houses – 4. Purananuru
(A) (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-2
(B) (a)-2, (b)-4, (c)-1, (d)-3
(C) (a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-3
(D) (a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-3, (d)-2
181. Which one is belonging to the Chapter Gratitude in Thirukkural?
(i) Self control of senses, like a tortoise, focussed on results, affords everlasting protection
(ii) Equality is up rightness in thought and conduct always guided by a rational mind
(iii) A friend in need is a friend indeed; do not forget him or forsake comrades
(A) (i) only
(B) (iii) only
(C) (ii) only
(D) (i) and (ii) only
182. Based on the verse of Thiruvalluvar, “Four ills eschew and virtue reach” arrange the following human qualities that will make you reach virtue :
- Anger
- Desire
- Malice
- Bitter Speech
(A) 2, 3, 1, 4
(B) 1, 2, 4, 3
(C) 4, 3, 2, 1
(D) 3, 2, 1, 4
183. Reason and Assertion :
Assertion [A] : A person who thinks that he will not be despised by others.
Reason [R] : He will refrain the thought of attaining any object with a forgery from entering his heart.
(A) [A] is true [R] is true
(B) [A] is true [R] is false
(C) [A] is false [R] is false
(D) [A] is false [R] is true
184. Choose the wrong pair :
- Thodakku – The ornaments on the neck
- Andalai Aduppu – Cock shaped
- Iyavithulam – Weapons for gouging the eyes
- Yeri Chiral – The equipment to stock Bow and arrows
(A) 1 and 4 incorrectly
(B) 1 and 2 incorrectly
(C) 2 and 3 incorrectly
(D) 3 and 4 incorrectly
185. Match the following :
Excavated sites in Tamil Nadu
(a) Chennai – 1. Mallapadi
(b) Tanjore – 2. Kambar Medu
(c) Dharmapuri – 3. Kodumanal
(d) Erode – 4. Pallavaram
(A) (a)-4, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-3
(B) (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-3, (d)-4
(C) (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-4
(D) (a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-3
186. Choose the right matches among type :
- In the ancient day, it was Tamil culture to conduct marriages on a spread of sand – Akananuru
- The Groom fastened a thali upon the Bride – Tholkappiyam
- There was a practice among the people of the bride to give dowry to the groom’s family – Nannul
- There was the practice of conducting the marriage infront of fire – Silappadikaram
(A) 1 and 4 are correct
(B) 1 and 3 are correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correct
(D) 3 and 4 are correct
187. 8 Men working 9 hours a day complete a piece of work in 20 days. In how many days can 12 men working for 10 hours a day complete the same piece of work?
(A) 9 days
(B) 10 days
(C) 11 days
(D) 12 days
188. Three circles of radius 3.5 cm are placed in such a way that each circle touches the other two. The area of the portion enclosed by the circles is
(A) 1.967 cm²
(B) 1.975 cm²
(C) 19.67 cm²
(D) 21.21 cm²
189. If the difference between S.I and C.I for 3 years at 5% is Rs. 183, then find the principal
(A) 18,000
(B) 8,000
(C) 24,000
(D) 30,000
190. Ramesh deposited Rs. 15,600 in a fixed deposit at 10% per annum simple interest. After every second year he adds his interest earning to the principal. The interest added at the end of 4th year is
(A) Rs. 1,716
(B) Rs. 1,560
(C) Rs. 3,744
(D) Rs. 1,872
191. The salary of A, B and C together amounts to Rs.33,300. If they spend 80%, 85% and 75% of their respective incomes, their savings are as 7:6:9. Find the salary of B.
(A) Rs.8,000
(B) Rs.10,000
(C) Rs.15,000
(D) Rs.12,000
192. Three numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 and their L.C.M. is 2400. The H.C.F of these numbers is _______
(A) 40
(B) 80
(C) 120
(D) 200
193. If a, b are two digit numbers such that HCF(a, b) = 15. Then how many pairs are available?
(A) 11
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) 15
194. 6 + 4 – 2/3 / (5 – 3 1/2) * 2/5 of {6 + 2 / (9 * 3 + 1/2)} =
(A) 1 1/3
(B) 2 13/49
(C) 1 7/16
(D) 2 3/5
195. In an A.P, t₇ – t₄ = 20. Which one of the following is false?
(A) We cannot determine first term
(B) Difference between first term and 10th term is 60
(C) A.M. of 12th term and 20th term is 16th term
(D) A.M. of 5th term and 30th term is 17th term
196. Mary is 16 years old. She is 4 times older than her brother. How old will she be when she is twice his age?
(A) 20
(B) 24
(C) 28
(D) 32
197. Pick the odd one from
CGKO : BFJN : AEIM : FDKN
(A) CGKO
(B) BFJN
(C) AEIM
(D) FDKN
198. There are 5 machines that make 5 parts in 5 minutes. How long does it take to make 100 parts in 100 machines?
(A) 5 minutes
(B) 100 minutes
(C) 50 minutes
(D) 30 minutes
199. When we write like this A1B4C9D16…..Z676, what is total value of the numbers followed by P and Q?
(A) 770
(B) 677
(C) 869
(D) 481
200. Given below are 4 pictures of a cube.
Which number is on the face opposite to 3?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
TNPSC Group 1 Question Paper 2025: Exam Pattern
The TNPSC Group 1 exam pattern consists that of Prelims and Mains exam. The Prelims exam is objective in nature while the Mains exam is subjective in nature. The details regarding the TNPSC Group 1 exam pattern for Prelims and Mains exam is given below.
TNPSC Group 1 Question Paper 2025; Prelims Exam Pattern
| Subject | Duration of exam | Total marks | Number of Questions |
| General Studies (Degree standard) | 3 hours | 300 | 175 |
| Aptitude and Mental Ability Test(SSLC standard) | 25 | ||
| Total | 200 |
TNPSC Group 1 Question Paper 2025; Mains Exam Pattern
TNPSC Group 1 Mains Exam 2025 consists of four papers. Paper I is the Tamil Eligibility Test, which carries 100 marks and has a duration of 3 hours. Paper II, Paper III, and Paper IV are General Studies Papers of Degree Standard. Each paper carries 250 marks. Each paper also has a duration of 3 hours. All papers are conducted for the same duration, making the total marks for the mains examination 850. This structure ensures a comprehensive evaluation of a candidate’s language proficiency and subject knowledge at the degree level.
TNPSC Group 1 Interview
The last stage of the TNPSC Group 1 exam is the interview. This is for a total of 100 marks. There is no qualifying marks for this stage of the exam. It is mandatory for all the candidates who qualify the Mains exam to appear for the interview.
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TNPSC Group 1 Question Paper 2025 FAQs
Ques: What is the duration of TNPSC Group 1 2025 prelims exam?
Ans. The General Studies section consists of 175 questions and the Aptitude and Mental Ability section consists of 25 questions. This TNPSC Group 1 Prelims Exam 2025 will be conducted for a total duration of 3 hours.
Ques: What is the timing of TNPSC group 1 2025 exam?
Ans. TNPSC Group 1 preliminary exam for 2025 is scheduled for June 15th, 2025, from 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM.
Ques: Does TNPSC Group 1 2025 Prelims have negative marking?
Ans. No, there is no negative marking in TNPSC Group I 2025 Prelims. All the questions will be of 1.5 marks each.
Ques: What to carry for TNPSC group 1 2025 exam?
Ans. Candidates going to appear in the exam must carry a hard copy of the TNPSC Group 1 admit card. They should also bring valid photo ID proof to the exam. These requirements are according to the exam guidelines prescribed by the commission.
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